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Posted by: SEcular Priest ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 05:58PM

Sat in Sunday School today as NASCAR is not on and wife wanted company.I have a serious question that bothers me.

I was looking through bible stuff at back of my scriptures. It says the "name of Jesus is from the Greek translation." I have always known that the Hebrew word for Christ could not be Jesus.

So here is my question. If the name Jesus is from Greek, how could the BoM writers use the name Jesus or Christ? Did they know Greek too?

I like the deep stuff folks so Sunday School bores me.

Thanks

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Posted by: experienceheals ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 06:05PM

The way I heard it was Jesus was just a nick name early christians called him. His real name in Hebrew was Yahweh or Joshua in english. I don't know exactly how when or where Jesus came from. Jesus wasn't his real name, but it does translate to mean savior or redeemer or something like that. Or was the word Christ that meant those things?

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Posted by: Jim Huston ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 06:06PM

Both Jesus and Christ are Greek. Messiah is also Greek (Messias), however Aramaic (Meshiha) and Hebrew (mashiah) are similar words meaning anointed. The Hebrew translation for Jesus is Joshua, the most common Hebrew name at the time.

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Posted by: bona dea ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 06:11PM

Jesus is the Greek version of Yeshua [Joshua] which is the name Jesus would have gone by. The NT was writtenin Greek which is why he now has a Greek name. Sort of like tranlating John as Juan or Giovanni.Christos is Greek for the annointed one or the messiah. Mormons would probably say that Jesus is used in the BofM so as to aviod confusion.

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Posted by: kentish ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 06:36PM

Whatever the correct rendering of his name in any language, Christ was not his name but his title. Mormons have a tendency to not often refer to him as just Jesus which many of them seem to think is too familiar...they tend to say Jesus Christ in a way that suggests Christ was his surname. Similarly, I think, they use Heavenly Father in the sense of a first and second name.

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Posted by: bona dea ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 06:56PM

kentish Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> Whatever the correct rendering of his name in any
> language, Christ was not his name but his title.
> Mormons have a tendency to not often refer to him
> as just Jesus which many of them seem to think is
> too familiar...they tend to say Jesus Christ in a
> way that suggests Christ was his surname.
> Similarly, I think, they use Heavenly Father in
> the sense of a first and second name.


His name would have been Yeshua bar or ben Yusaf.He was not Jesus Christ the son of Joseph and Mary Christ.

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Posted by: henrysmith ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 06:59PM

There is no J sound in Hebrew, anywhere at all. Our "J"'s in our KJV come from the translations into German by an Austrian monk, that were copied by English translators, and J in German has a Y sound.

Just more proof Joseph smith was a very charismatic story-teller, and not man gifted as a prophet.

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Posted by: Raptor Jesus ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 07:04PM

The closest anyone got was in Jurassic Park 3 when they made a model of one of my disciple's larynx and blew threw it.

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Posted by: wine country girl ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 07:38PM


Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 01/23/2011 07:39PM by wine country girl.

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Posted by: Raptor Jesus ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 10:05PM


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Posted by: Dave the Atheist ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 07:36PM

Just to piss you off

http://amazingtruth.xanga.com/668707347/item/



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 01/23/2011 07:36PM by Dave the Atheist.

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Posted by: Jim Huston ( )
Date: January 23, 2011 07:40PM

Why would that piss anyone off? One mythical God is as good as any other.

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