In Joseph Smith's warped cosmology, Elohim had sex with a man's wife...Mary, wife of Joseph. As most of this forum is aware, Joseph Smith had sexual relations with the wives of other men, including his fellow brethren in the church.

Was this doctrine of divine adultery a rationalization after the fact of Smith's actions or did the doctrine provide the precedent? Or am I seeing a connection where there is none?

In a similar sense, divine sex with minors was an after the fact revelation (i.e. Fanny Alger). It seems Horney Joe would screw up, and then have some sort of revelation to justify his narcisstic behavior.

He knew he was doing things with other mens wives that would be culturally abhorrent and unacceptable, but if he could somehow make it seem okay that even Eloheim had sex with another man's wife - well than, there you have it, "I'm a prophet, God the Father did, I am important just like he is therefore, it's okay for me too."

I think it was Brigham Young who first spoke about God the Father literally impregnating Mary. But, I might be wrong.

Someone else's wife (Joseph), but his own daughter (spirit, anyway).

Twisted in more ways than I care to think about.

But was Mary married to Joseph when she became pregnant? I didn't think they were married yet. You think Elohim would just bring down one of his "heavely wives" like he did when he was Adam... And if he wasn't married to Mary, well, isn't that fornication?