Posted by:
anon for now
(
)
Date: February 01, 2012 02:43PM
Okay--
It's probably rude of me to post without doing any preliminary research. I've just been looking for some stuff, and (surprise, surprise), I've found something from FARMS which discusses the very nature of the problem. And, of course, it comes down to language--"well, it couldn't be 'steel', because 'steel' didn't exist as such back then..." and then refers to Biblical language that also describes steel bows as far back as Samuel. The then declare that it must have been an incorrect translation by the KJV translators in the 1600s.
But, if the Book of Mormon is the most correct book on the face of the earth, why would a mistake in the translation of the KJV matter? And why should that prove anything about the mis-use of the same terminology in the Book of Mormon?
Here's a link, for anyone who might be interested (although I'd imagine that most on this board are over all this by this point):
http://maxwellinstitute.byu.edu/publications/books/?bookid=66&chapid=737