FAIR claims that DNA testing proves Joseph Smith fathered no children out of wedlock with Emma. (see link)

My question for FAIR: If DNA is the basis for your argument here, why is DNA evidence dismissed in the South American indian Asian/Israelite argument?

http://en.fairmormon.org/Joseph_Smith/Polygamy/Children_of_polygamous_marriages

And even if true... so what? How does this affect any substantial issue whatsoever regarding the truthiness (the borrow from Stephen Colbert) of Mormonism?

Plenty of ways of not passing on DNA... same ways lots of BYU coeds stay "virgins" today.

and don't forget Dr Bennet's abortion tool. Also, have they actually tested the down lines for each and every suggested polygynous wife? That would have to include the descendents of all the men whose wives he was reported to have taken into spiritual wifery. Often the extent of the contact was one night for many. In all honesty how many women actually get pregant after one act of sexual intercourse.

"how many women actually get pregant after one act of sexual intercourse"

JS seems to have been the 'one, done, onto the next one' type...

and weren't going to get supported.

It's also worth mentioning, in light of the mention of John C. Bennet upthread, that many woman and likely all mid-wives were very aware of natural abortifacients available to them. For millennia, women knew of and took care of such things.

DNA evidence proves no such thing about Joseph Smith. It only proves that none of the people tested descended from him.

The real question is if Jacob 2:30 says that God will command otherwise to "raise up seed unto me," then how come no seed was raised up? What was the real purpose for Joseph to have so many wives?

Yeah, the procreative power is believed in Moism to be the greatest gift of exaltation, and the biggest mark of divinity. But Joe's swimmers couldn't get the job done with his extra "wives"?

Maybe god was under the weather during the 1840's.

Er...the seed was all that was raised.