Posted by:
hello
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Date: July 12, 2012 06:19PM
"Father Adam's oldest son, Jesus the Savior, who is the heir of the family, is Father Adam's first begotten in the spirit world and the only begotten according to the flesh (as it is written), Adam in his divinity having gone back into the spirit world and come in the spirit to Mary, and she conceived. For when Adam and Eve got through with their work in this earth, they did not lay their bodies down in the dust but returned to the spirit world, from whence they came."
If, as according to the Adam-God theory and this lecture at the veil, Adam knew Eve and they conceived children, then how can Jesus be the "only begotten of the Father in the flesh", as the scriptures and prophets love to assert?
Wouldn't all of Adam's mortal progeny also be "begotten of the Father in the flesh"?