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Posted by: Jesus Smith ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 07:59AM

I know that LDS' familysearch.org has entries of JS' polygamous wives. Of course, those have been entered by "common members" and are not officially correlated.

I know that Bushman discusses a few of JS' wives in his Rough Stone. But this is about as close to correlated as it gets, that I know of.


I have yet to see a Q70 or Q15 or an ensign article from the last 50 years (I don't know if it was in the previous archive) that admits JS practiced polygamy while living.

Does anyone have references from officially correlated LDS sources?

Thanks

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Posted by: oldklunker ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 09:07AM

1979 Ensign article "Joseph Smith’s Reputation"

One of the Prophet’s plural wives, having lived three years in his home, reflected late in her life, “I have known of his outgoings, and his incomings, his sorrows and joys, his troubles and afflictions in public and in private. He was one of the noblest of men and those who knew him best, loved him most.”

Not much information,but it is noted that he had more than one wife.

Edit: September issue footnote 14
14. Emily Dow Partridge Young, Diary, typescript, 27 June 1898, Church Hist. Dept. Archives.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 09/23/2013 09:39AM by oldklunker.

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Posted by: tiptoes ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 09:25AM

I do know a small blurb appears in the green manual "The Church History and Fullness of Times and in the "Doctrine and Covenants" student manual.

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Posted by: David Jason ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 09:28AM

D&C 132 is pretty good evidence

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Posted by: Jesus Smith ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 09:32AM

I also found this:

http://www.lds.org/topics/polygamy-plural-marriage

"After God revealed the doctrine of plural marriage to Joseph Smith in 1831 and commanded him to live it, the Prophet, over a period of years, cautiously taught the doctrine to some close associates. Eventually, he and a small number of Church leaders entered into plural marriages in the early years of the Church. Those who practiced plural marriage at that time, both male and female, experienced a significant trial of their faith. The practice was so foreign to them that they needed and received personal inspiration from God to help them obey the commandment."

Which is a bland admission that JS did practice plural marriage.

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Posted by: Chump ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 10:58AM

Where does the 1831 date come from? Is this when he told men to go marry the "lamanites"? His first plural marriage was sometime between 1833 and 1835, right?

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Posted by: Hold Your Tapirs ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 11:20AM

D&C 132's heading explains the 1831 date. Section 132 wasn't recorded until 1843 but they add the disclaimer that JS knew about the doctrine since 1831. TSCC does this to "grandfather in" all of JS's polygamous marriages prior to 1843.

I think 1831 was the alleged Fanny Alger incident. She was the 16 year old maid that lived with the Smiths. Supposedly, she was JS's first polygamous wife.

D&C 132 Heading:
"Although the revelation was recorded in 1843, evidence indicates that some of the principles involved in this revelation were known by the Prophet as early as 1831."



Edited 2 time(s). Last edit at 09/23/2013 11:26AM by Hold Your Tapirs.

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Posted by: Facsimile 3 ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 11:46AM

I think the 1831 date is the Lamanite revelation. My understanding is that Fanny Alger would have occurred a few years later.

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Posted by: Hold Your Tapirs ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 11:52AM

Yes, I stand corrected. Alger wasn't until later.

The fact remains that JS practiced polygamy prior the revelation being recorded. I suppose he can claim to have received it at any time prior to it being recorded.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 09/23/2013 12:32PM by Hold Your Tapirs.

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Posted by: Facsimile 3 ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 12:04PM

Correct, but let's clarify something that is very important: http://www.wivesofjosephsmith.org/02-FannyAlger.htm uses 1833 as the year of their "marriage". I am not sure how the precise year is determined, but based on http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fanny_Alger, the Algers did not leave Kirtland with Fanny until September 1836. The sealing keys that would be necessary for any kind of eternal marriages were not received by Joseph Smith until April 1836 (D&C 110). That means that unless the marriage took place between April and September 1836, Fanny Alger could NOT have been a plural wife in the D&C 132 sense, since there would have been no way to seal it.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 09/23/2013 12:05PM by facsimile3.

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Posted by: Hold Your Tapirs ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 12:27PM

So it's more proof that he was making it up as he went along?

I suppose there is debate over whether Fanny really was a plural wife.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 09/23/2013 12:28PM by Hold Your Tapirs.

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Posted by: Facsimile 3 ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 12:36PM

Most critics view it as simple adultery, whereas LDS apologists seem to universally embrace it as his first plural marriage. I think that is why they like to emphasize the early 1831 date of the Lamanite revelation to give it an air of legitimacy. Sadly, it appears that the most likely date for this "marriage" was spring/summer of 1836: http://www.josephsmithspolygamy.com/FannyAlger/JS-FADatingtheRelationship.html. That means that apologists can still claim that it happened shortly after Joseph received the sealing keys. It also makes it less lechy, since it would make Fanny 19 years old instead of 16.

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Posted by: Ex-CultMember ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 11:37AM

Its admitted in official church sources such as the church's own website, though they of course do not go into any kind of detail. No number of wives taken, their ages, their names, their stories, etc. They admit he started and practiced polygamy but that's all. And its usually in a section where a member would have to be searching for info on polygamy. They're not gonna see it in regular church manuals, general conference talks, etc. so a regular member may have no clue of this fact.

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Posted by: GNPE ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 01:14PM

partly because... TSCC DENIED IT at the time;

Pants On Fire!

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Posted by: Facsimile 3 ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 03:02PM

It was mentioned in William E. Berrett's "The Restored Church", which was reviewed/approved by the Church Reading Committee and several apostles, and used in seminary classes. My wife's copy was from 1973, and serves as one of the best examples of deliberate fraud on this issue. It claims that Joseph and some of the leadership practiced it in private, but that he was hestitant to institute the practice even though it was not “forbidden by the State or Federal constitution.”

Did you catch that? Berrett's use of the word "constitution" was a clear attempt to induce the TBM reader to think "laws of the land", when in fact, polygamy was against the laws of the land throughout the United States. Of course, bigamy laws are a fairly standard thing, but as is the case with statuatory law, NOT an explicit part of any constitution (nor should they be expected to be).



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 09/23/2013 03:07PM by facsimile3.

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Posted by: foundoubt ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 04:12PM

I could be wrong, but from what I understand, the bigamy laws were enacted following institution of the practice of polygamy. Most states enacted bigamy laws expressly for the purpose of stopping the Mormons from practicing polygamy. One of the few laws in this country enacted specifically against a religious practice.

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Posted by: Facsimile 3 ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 04:21PM

That is incorrect. D. Michael Quinn cites an 1833 anti-bigamy law for Illinois that was established before the Mormons arrived in Illinois and before there were even any rumors of Mormon polygamy. My understanding is that every state in the union had anti-bigamy laws in place before it ever started as a practice for the LDS (private or public). The reason for anti-bigamy laws has little to do with polygamy, but the habit of men to cheat on their wives--in some cases marrying a second wife in another town without the first wife's knowledge. Bear in mind that adultery and fornication were also illegal in those days, so anti-bigamy laws were necessary to close any loophole that philandering men might otherwise exploit.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 09/23/2013 04:22PM by facsimile3.

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Posted by: Facsimile 3 ( )
Date: September 23, 2013 04:24PM

BTW, your impression is precisely what LDS propaganda over the years was intended to create, and which is why most LDS do not realize that Joseph Smith was breaking the law when he instituted the practice.

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