Posted by:
SL Cabbie
(
)
Date: February 26, 2015 09:32AM
You've got a definite "wannabe" aroma...
Your use of the word "corn" as a generic term for all grains is archaic; don't tell the apologists, but that was already the case in Joseph Smith's day.
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=cornMy favorite story about how words change means involves the word "nice" which entered the lexcion around the 14th Centuty. Coming from French, it orginally meant "foolish or sexually wanton."
(Look it up in the OED if you doubt me)
So there was a time when nice girls did.
http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/96522/why-does-corn-mean-maize-in-american-english>I keep hearing "corn" as a synonym of "maize". This is widely popularized worldwide by popcorn. However, this is American English! In British English, "corn" can mean any type of "grain", especially "wheat", as in the Corn Laws. Why does "corn" mean "maize" in American English? Is there a historical reason to account for this change of meaning?
Joseph Smith, or whoever wrote the BOM, was writing in "American English."
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 02/26/2015 09:33AM by SL Cabbie.