Recovery Board  : RfM
Recovery from Mormonism (RfM) discussion forum. 
Go to Topic: PreviousNext
Go to: Forum ListMessage ListNew TopicSearchLog In
Posted by: brianberkeley ( )
Date: May 20, 2017 11:07PM

The Abrahamic religions of Christianity, Judaism, and Islam insist that God is all-good, all-powerful, and all-benevolent, omnibenevolent, omniscient, and omnipotent. This core belief is non negotiable with People of the Book.

And that is the dilemma. Christianity, especially, has serious issues reconciling an all powerful God with the existence of Evil. This is the paradox that cannot be resolved.

"Is God willing to prevent evil, but not Able?"
"Then he is not omnipotent. Is he able, but not willing? Then
he is malevolent."
Is he both able and willing? Then whence cometh evil?"
"Is he neither able nor willing? Then why call him God."

If you think about this paradox, it is apparent that there is no way out without accepting that God condones the existence of evil.
If Christians accepted the Zoroastrian position that the world is divided into Ahura Mazda and Ahriman, Light and Dark, there would be no paradox.

The Epicuras Trilemma is like a sliver under your finger nail. I have posted on this topic in the past, but it continues in my thoughts. The Book of Job, as well, has always been a fascination. But the Trilemma, like the Book of Job, deal with the paradox of God power. Epicuras, most likely, wrote about the God Zeus, but the paradox continues.

Comments?

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Chicken N. Backpacks ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 12:12AM

As long as Sam and Dean Winchester are out there fighting the dark side, our world will be a little safer.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Cpete ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 12:29AM

God is an idea. Bad ideas deserve criticism.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Babyloncansuckit ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 01:07AM

What if God condones the existence of TSCC? That would solve the paradox.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 03:44AM

You know this, Brian, but the Book of Job was largely lifted from Zoroastrianism. Elements of the story, such as the devil appearing in God's court, are incompatible with the Judeo-Christian idea of a war in heaven and the banishment of Satan, but were compatible with the mythology of AM. Also, there were earlier versions of the story in the Persian literature. It's no surprise that the story entered the Hebrew tradition when the exiles returned from the Captivity to Palestine.

The reason for Job's inclusion in the sapiential books is the philosophical questions it raises, as in the Trilemma. As much as believers theorize around the basic problem of an omnipotent and good God allowing evil and suffering, ultimately it is not a paradox but rather an actual contradiction. There is no solution.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Babyloncansuckit ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 12:47PM

The koan angle is interesting. These stories are important guides to the storms of our minds. We fight monumental battles within ourselves, which is fine, but they spill out into the world around us, which is not fine. God, the devil, Thor, Loki, Gandalf, Sauron. All the same, guides of a metaphysical sort.

Just as with biological evolution, we may someday lose our tales when we no longer need them.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: bona dea ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 04:31PM

My very TBM seminary teacher taught us that the book.of Job was fictional.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Press ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 04:26AM

"'Since God is the highest good, He would not allow any evil to exist in His works, unless His omnipotence and goodness were such as to bring good even out of evil.' This is part of the infinite goodness of God, that He should allow evil to exist, and out of it produce good" (Summa Theologiæ I.2.3 ad 1).

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 05:23AM

Yup. That's the typical argument.

God is by definition good, therefore what he does and allows to be done is good even if it is evil. You start with the conclusion and reason backwards.

But if you dispense with the preconception--that God is by definition good--the tautology collapses. That is no answer to the question posed by Epicurus and Job.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Press ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 11:59AM

P1. God is sheer being itself.
P2. Being and goodness are convertible.
C. God is sheer goodness itself.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: dagny ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 02:04PM

That just makes God an @ssh0le if he lets anything bad happen just so he gets to produce good out of it.

It's like pushing your kid off a cliff and then claiming how good you are when you rescue him and convince him he learned something.

I don't see any evidence that a god is all that benevolent. I suspect that is why most of the big religions are busy graveling and praising god. They know that god can be quite malevolent and they try to spin it to make the god seem good. Out of fear, they keep saying how "good" god is, but in reality, they know it's a crapshoot.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 03:46PM

Your points. . .


> P1. God is sheer being itself.

Do you have any proof for the notion that God is "sheer being itself?" What is "sheer being itself?"



> P2. Being and goodness are convertible.

Do you have any evidence, or even an explanation, for that assertion?



> C. God is sheer goodness itself.

Assuming that your two fundamental assertions are proven, or even articulated, how does that explain the problem of evil and suffering?

The truth is that all you have done is to tee up the contradiction that Epicurus describes. If God is good and omnipotent, why does he allow evil?

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Richard Foxe ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 07:31AM

Is God responsible for our dreams? Are WE? Are you responsible for your children's dreams? Are THEY?

Are the depths--and heights--of our minds far beyond our operating span of awareness?

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Greyfort ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 12:18PM

I figure that if there is some sort of being or energy which created all of this, then it must simply be a curious being who likes to create things and then see what happens.

Although this brings up the question of, "Then where did this being come from?"

But I no longer think of it in any way as a god.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: jacob ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 01:34PM

One of the the things that is missed with this is the basic fact that god is also unknowable. So how would someone who wasn't equipped to judge from the perspective of an all powerful, all good, all knowing, all present being have any chance of understanding what was good and evil to that being.

I'm not Epicurus or Augustine but I do know that Epicurus couldn't have conceived of the god that Christianity and Islam have created.

For the gods that many worship now this dilemma is based on a strawman.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/21/2017 02:07PM by jacob.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: ificouldhietokolob ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 04:11PM

jacob Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> One of the the things that is missed with this is
> the basic fact that god is also unknowable.

That's not a "basic fact."
It's an assertion.
And a bare assertion at that (one without any supporting evidence).

:)

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: jacob ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 05:21PM

I get where you are coming from but from my perspective it doesn't matter that it is a bare assertion or basic fact. I'll put money on the line that there isn't a person alive that knows god.

The atheist in me says that they don't know god because there isn't a god. The agnostic in me says that their might be infinite possibilities making god again something that cannot be known.

From an academic viewpoint, because I'm not theist, most of the gods that I might believe in are equally unknown by nature and dogma. The god that is fully explained is so rare that when it does happen it gets classified as heretical or cultish. Elohim being a prime example.

I think it is basicly a factual assertion.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: ificouldhietokolob ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 06:01PM

jacob Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> I get where you are coming from but from my
> perspective it doesn't matter that it is a bare
> assertion or basic fact. I'll put money on the
> line that there isn't a person alive that knows
> god.

I agree. However, that's different from a god being unknowable.

> From an academic viewpoint, because I'm not
> theist, most of the gods that I might believe in
> are equally unknown by nature and dogma.

Sure, but again -- the personal ignorance of someone(or even all humans) when it comes to "gods" is different from the "gods" being unknowable.

> I think it is basicly a factual assertion.

Sorry, can't agree with that one.
It's still a bare assertion :)

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 06:57PM

Two observations.

First, in stating that no one knows God, you are assuming that God exists. That assertion--I know it doesn't necessarily describe your personal views--is itself faith-based. Any observation about the nature of God that follows from that presumption is built on sand.

Second, Eloheim is not in fact a known deity. His characteristics changed over the course of the OT, then over the NT, and continue to change even today. Assuming you mean by Eloheim the God of the Abrahamic religions, he takes a step backward with every ontological and scientific advance and with the evolution of societal values.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: jacob ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 07:31PM

Lot's Wife Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------

> First, in stating that no one knows God, you are
> assuming that God exists. That assertion--I know
> it doesn't necessarily describe your personal
> views--is itself faith-based. Any observation
> about the nature of God that follows from that
> presumption is built on sand.

What then would be a valid observation? If the dogma of most religions claim that god isn't knowable. And the atheist claims that you cannot know something that doesn't exist. And the agnostic simply accepts that they don't know anything. I wonder what observation I'm left with? I think my presumption is relatively sound.

>
> Second, Eloheim is not in fact a known deity. His
> characteristics changed over the course of the OT,
> then over the NT, and continue to change even
> today. Assuming you mean by Eloheim the God of
> the Abrahamic religions, he takes a step backward
> with every ontological and scientific advance and
> with the evolution of societal values.

By Elohim I mean Mormon god. The god of the Abrahamic religions already has a name, God.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 04:55PM

God is unknowable. Yes, believers always assert that. But they also give God any number of specific traits. The Jewish God has a body that can be seen in a burning bush, can sit on the Arc of the Covenant with the High Priest, is jealous, etc. The Christian God died and was resurrected, will appear in his bodily form again, is a God of love, etc. The Mormon God is one of two embodied divine beings, has sexual intercourse with multiple wives, etc. Moreover people are very confident when they receive messages from God and know when he approves of their actions.

So only part of God is unknowable. And those ambiguous characteristics change over time, in part with the advance of scientific and psychological knowledge.

The Abrahamic God's name is God. That is not true. His name according to the Bible was Elohim, then Yhwh, then Jehovah, sometimes Adonai. God's name and characteristics changed over time. Originally Elohim and Yhwh were the deities of different groups but they merged over time. Yhwh then yielded to Jehovah as the jealous God moved towards the loving God.

The Mormon God shared all of that evolution and continued to evolve fast during the 19th and 20th centuries. So it is possible to describe many of his characteristics at any given point in time. The trouble arises with the passage of time because people kept redefining him. Basically believers revert to "God is unknowable" when their specific beliefs are disproved or become inconvenient.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Tall Man, Short Hair ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 02:38PM

Here's one of the better responses to this dilemma. In short, the foundational assumptions are self-defeating. If you wish to argue there is no God and no transcendent good or bad, you render an argument that relies upon a universal good or bad as fallacious.

https://www.prageru.com/courses/religionphilosophy/god-and-suffering

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 03:35PM

Here is the summary of the video you reference.

"How can "suffering" exist without an objective standard against which to judge it? Absent a standard, there is no justice. If there is no justice, there is no injustice. And if there is no injustice, there is no suffering. On the other hand, if justice exists, God exists."

The logical leaps in that excerpt are astounding.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Tall Man, Short Hair ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 03:50PM

I think you'll find the logical leaps are those attempting to track the problematic twists that unravel this dilemma.

There is problem when someone tries to frame an argument that assumes there is no common, transcendent moral ground with an argument that is valid only if there is a common, transcendent moral ground. It's self defeating.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 04:00PM

That is true. And I don't mind the use of this issue as a sort of koan, a mechanism through which to ponder moral and ontological issues. That is useful.

Regarding your conclusion, though, the choice isn't just between one transcendent moral view and another. The third option is agnosticism, meaning in this case realization that the individual does not see an obvious answer. Uncertainty is an emotionally uncomfortable position, though it is a logically consistent one.

That's the reason the Epicurean problem keeps reappearing. Efforts to answer the question Brian raises may satisfy some on an emotional level, but the logic underlying any transcendent vision is not solid.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Henry Bemis ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 07:29PM

LW: "Regarding your conclusion, though, the choice isn't just between one transcendent moral view and another. The third option is agnosticism, meaning in this case realization that the individual does not see an obvious answer. Uncertainty is an emotionally uncomfortable position, though it is a logically consistent one."

COMMENT: Agnosticism is not helpful here. The problem is that a person taking this position, e.g. a humanist, remains committed to moral standards, laws and principles, that are left unexplained. This creates a paradox that suggests something that is transcendent, even if not God. Morality cannot be explained by an appeal to science, physics, biology, or even neuroscience, because of the naturalistic fallacy; i.e. you cannot get an ought from an is. Second, postulating God as an explanation does indeed require a lot of philosophical work, but I do not find it inherently inconsistent. That would depend upon the definitions one chooses for "God." It only becomes inconsistent when you postulate an "omnipotent" God, which in my view is incoherent of itself; particularly if such a God is supposed to also have "personhood" of some sort. In short, the notion of evil is complicated even by our own intuitions. Thus, we cannot simply lay the problem (or paradox) of morality at the feet of theists.
__________________________________________

LW: "That's the reason the Epicurean problem keeps reappearing. Efforts to answer the question Brian raises may satisfy some on an emotional level, but the logic underlying any transcendent vision is not solid."

COMMENT: Well, if an omnipotent God is part of the solution, I agree. In fact, I would say, again, that it is incoherent, which is arguably worse that illogical. But you reach too far by including all that might be described as a "transcendent vision." After all, one might simply insist that moral principles are transcendently part of the reality of consciousness or mind. Admittedly, this is grossly speculative, and even paradoxical (as is consciousness and mind), but not inconsistent. And again, agnosticism is not an stance that removes any of the paradoxical content surrounding the basic human commitment to some sort of objective morality.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: ificouldhietokolob ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 07:36PM

Henry Bemis Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> COMMENT: Agnosticism is not helpful here. The
> problem is that a person taking this position,
> e.g. a humanist, remains committed to moral
> standards, laws and principles, that are left
> unexplained.

Not so. The "standards, laws, and principles" ARE explained, they're just explained without appeal to "god" things.
There are a variety of explanations, one of which is "best way we know of to minimize human suffering." Lots more.

> This creates a paradox that suggests
> something that is transcendent, even if not God.

No paradox, since the premise (that they're not explained) wasn't correct. Problem solved.
Not to mention that even if the premise that they're not explained was true, that wouldn't "suggest" anything other than that we don't have an explanation. Making up an explanation when the fact is we don't have one is an argument from ignorance.

> Morality cannot be explained by an appeal to
> science, physics, biology, or even neuroscience,
> because of the naturalistic fallacy; i.e. you
> cannot get an ought from an is.

That's a bit of a straw-man, since the "naturalistic fallacy" isn't offered up by humanists or others.
Experience shows us lots of "best" ways to minimize human suffering. That's where the "ought" comes from -- evidence and experience. And science, physics, biology, neuroscience, etc. all of which provide facts to back up the "best" ways to minimize human suffering.
No need whatsoever to appeal to "the transcendent," for which there is no evidence.

> Second,
> postulating God as an explanation does indeed
> require a lot of philosophical work, but I do not
> find it inherently inconsistent.

It's inherently irrational (and therefore a worthless postulation), as there's no evidence for a "god."

> That would
> depend upon the definitions one chooses for "God."

Not really. Pick one -- no evidence for it.

:)



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/22/2017 07:44PM by ificouldhietokolob.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Henry Bemis ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 08:36PM

Not so. The "standards, laws, and principles" ARE explained, they're just explained without appeal to "god" things.
There are a variety of explanations, one of which is "best way we know of to minimize human suffering." Lots more.

COMMENT: What has to be explained is why such principles have moral authority, including the principle that suffering is evil. It is one thing to explain why or how human beings came to hold moral beliefs, and quite another to explain why such beliefs "ought" to be respected and followed.

__________________________________________________

No paradox, since the premise (that they're not explained) wasn't correct. Problem solved.

COMMENT: No, problem not solved. And by the way, after literally centuries of discussion on this philosophical point, virtually no one believes that the problem or morality is solved.
____________________________________________________

Not to mention that even if the premise that they're not explained was true, that wouldn't "suggest" anything other than that we don't have an explanation. Making up an explanation when the fact is we don't have one is an argument from ignorance.

COMMENT: Postulating possible solutions, whether they are theistic or materialist is not "an argument from ignorance." If it were scientists were be making arguments from ignorance all the time, which they don't. An argument from ignorance makes ignorance itself part of the argument. No modern theist makes this mistake.
____________________________________________________

> Morality cannot be explained by an appeal to
> science, physics, biology, or even neuroscience,
> because of the naturalistic fallacy; i.e. you
> cannot get an ought from an is.

That's a bit of a straw-man, since the "naturalistic fallacy" isn't offered up by humanists or others.

COMMENT: The naturalistic fallacy is alive and well. The point is that if a humanist wants to ground his or her commitment to objective morality (which is part of humanism) with rational argument, they are confronted with the naturalistic fallacy; i.e. how does science, materialism, or any other non-transcendent argument meet the dictates of morality authority. Science doesn't even claim to do that!
______________________________________

Experience shows us lots of "best" ways to minimize human suffering. That's where the "ought" comes from -- evidence and experience. And science, physics, biology, neuroscience, etc. all of which provide facts to back up the "best" ways to minimize human suffering.

COMMENT: This assumes that minimizing human suffering is the essence of morality. What is the scientific argument for that assumption. Moreover, whose suffering are we supposed to minimize, and at what cost with respect to other values.
_________________________________________

No need whatsoever to appeal to "the transcendent," for which there is no evidence.

COMMENT: Well, then, you will need to provide a scientific explanation for morality; not just moral intuitions or feelings, but moral AUTHORITY; i.e. what makes a moral dictate imperative on someone who otherwise rejects it.
_________________________________________

> Second,
> postulating God as an explanation does indeed
> require a lot of philosophical work, but I do not
> find it inherently inconsistent.

It's inherently irrational (and therefore a worthless postulation), as there's no evidence for a "god."

COMMENT: Well "inherently irrational" suggests either incoherence or inconsistency. Lack of evidence alone does not make a view irrational. Otherwise, Einstein was irrational when he postulated special relativity as a theoretical construct without confirming evidence, and cosmologists are irrational when they postulate multiple universes.
_________________________________

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: ificouldhietokolob ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 10:02AM

Henry Bemis Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> COMMENT: What has to be explained is why such
> principles have moral authority, including the
> principle that suffering is evil.

Because we decide they have moral authority, and decide that suffering is evil. Both morality and evil are subjective, as evidence clearly demonstrates. So not a problem at all.

> It is one thing
> to explain why or how human beings came to hold
> moral beliefs, and quite another to explain why
> such beliefs "ought" to be respected and
> followed.

I already explained that above. Here, I'll make it more clear -- and it's not an "ought," it's simply a decision.

I've suffered. I don't like suffering. It's less good than not suffering, in my subjective experience. So I don't want to suffer. Having empathy, I realize that other human beings are probably like me (and they also tell me so), and they don't like suffering either. So I want to not suffer, and my empathy allows me to realize that other humans also don't want to suffer. So let's minimize human suffering. It's good for me, it's good for all other humans.

> COMMENT: No, problem not solved. And by the way,
> after literally centuries of discussion on this
> philosophical point, virtually no one believes
> that the problem or morality is solved.

a) straw-man; I didn't say "morality" was solved. I just pointed out that your claimed paradox wasn't a paradox.

b)Since most of those "centuries of discussion" have involved irrational, unfounded claims about imaginary god-things and their supposed "objective morality," most of the "centuries of discussion" have been rather pointless. Before microscopes, there was "centuries of discussion" about the causes of bacterial diseases -- once we started rationally inquiring about the problem instead of attributing the diseases to "demons" and such, the problem WAS solved. We can do the same with "morality."

> COMMENT: Postulating possible solutions, whether
> they are theistic or materialist is not "an
> argument from ignorance."

Your original statement:
"Morality cannot be explained by an appeal to science, physics, biology, or even neuroscience...This creates a paradox that suggests something that is transcendent, even if not God."

There's no paradox. And that's a classic appeal to ignorance fallacy formulation: You can't explain it, so it's x. Not being able to explain something doesn't suggest anything is "transcendent." It only suggests we don't have an explanation, nothing more. Not that the premise was valid in the first place, as I pointed out.

> If it were scientists
> were be making arguments from ignorance all the
> time, which they don't. An argument from ignorance
> makes ignorance itself part of the argument. No
> modern theist makes this mistake.

You just did.
Oops.


> COMMENT: The naturalistic fallacy is alive and
> well. The point is that if a humanist wants to
> ground his or her commitment to objective morality...

That's why it was a straw-man. Humanism doesn't make any claims about objective morality. They accept the overwhelming evidence showing it's subjective.

> (which is part of humanism)

...and the straw-man continues...
(hint: objective morality claims aren't part of humanism)

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 12:11AM

Henry,

The issue you raise is an important one: namely, why do people have moral codes if there is not a transcendent commonality. That is an issue that used to bother me a lot.

The answer, I think, does in fact lie in biology. Morality--selflessness--exists in some form in all social species. It is an evolutionary strategy. You see it with maternal instinct, with penguins where the male tends the young, and in groups where animals protect each other. Do they share a moral vision? No. Many would argue that they aren't even conscious in important ways. And yet they behave altruistically and in some cases engage in self sacrifice.

Once one realizes that altruistic behavior is not solely a human phenomenon and that it functions as a survival strategy, there is no longer a need to posit some transcendent code. The observed code, to the extent that it exists and is shared, is intuitive, impulsive, instinctual. The code's limitations--the difficulty people have feeling empathy for those of other social groups, the inability to curtail group activities that are ultimately self-destructive--also make sense given that for most of human existence it was only one's family or tribe or clan or nation that mattered.

The transcendent moral vision turns out to accord with the survival needs of hunter gatherers and perhaps agriculturalists. Many of our present social and political problems stem from the fact that our technology has progressed vastly faster than our biology. It would be great if there were an overarching common morality since that would presumably have kept pace with scientific advances.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Henry Bemis ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 09:51AM

LW: The issue you raise is an important one: namely, why do people have moral codes if there is not a transcendent commonality. That is an issue that used to bother me a lot.

COMMENT: That is not the main issue! The issue is not about the source of moral feelings or intuitions. The issue is about moral authority! How do any facts about the universe dictate how human beings ought to morally behave; i.e. what dictates the moral imperative under any given moral dilemma. In other words, what is the logical inference that gets you from any set of facts, be it biological facts, or whatever, as premises, to the moral imperative, such that someone is morally required to do such and such act. There is no logical inference that can make that leap without moral assumptions about that ultimately is good or evil (transcendence). That is the issue!
__________________________________________

LW: The answer, I think, does in fact lie in biology. Morality--selflessness--exists in some form in all social species. It is an evolutionary strategy. You see it with maternal instinct, with penguins where the male tends the young, and in groups where animals protect each other. Do they share a moral vision? No. Many would argue that they aren't even conscious in important ways. And yet they behave altruistically and in some cases engage in self sacrifice.

COMMENT: First, the source of altruism in biology (its evolutionary basis), be it the social insects, or humans, is hotly debated. But in any case the problem remains. Again, the fact that humans in general, and in certain contexts, "feel" a moral requirement to act altruistically, does not provide any logical imperative that someone must so act in order to meet some objectively established moral requirement. And no account of altruism changes that.
_______________________________________

Once one realizes that altruistic behavior is not solely a human phenomenon and that it functions as a survival strategy, there is no longer a need to posit some transcendent code.

COMMENT: Now, YOU need to step up with logical support for this argument. How do facts about biology eliminate the need for moral authority? Even if altruism is a survival strategy that does not give altruistic behavior moral status. After all, social insects act altruistically, but not morally!. But it is even worse than that. Altruism in biology is a paradox of evolution. Self-interested behavior, on the other hand, is at the very core of evolutionary theory. So, if we are looking to biology to ground our morality, why not go with self-interest rather than altruism as the foundational principal of our moral compass?
____________________________________________

LW: The observed code, to the extent that it exists and is shared, is intuitive, impulsive, instinctual. The code's limitations--the difficulty people have feeling empathy for those of other social groups, the inability to curtail group activities that are ultimately self-destructive--also make sense given that for most of human existence it was only one's family or tribe or clan or nation that mattered.

COMMENT: These are just suggested facts. They have nothing whatever to do with moral authority; i.e. what morality requires someone to do under certain circumstances. Altruism in biology is generally explained through some theory of group selection. But, again, at best all that is explained is how our general moral sense might have evolved. It does not explain how we should behave. As indicated, there are evolutionary explanations as to why humans cheat, steal, and murder each other too. Does that mean we should accept a moral code that sanctions cheating, stealing and murdering?
___________________________________________

LW: The transcendent moral vision turns out to accord with the survival needs of hunter gatherers and perhaps agriculturalists. Many of our present social and political problems stem from the fact that our technology has progressed vastly faster than our biology. It would be great if there were an overarching common morality since that would presumably have kept pace with scientific advances.

COMMENT: Again, you continually miss the point. Let me end with a hypothetical:

Suppose you are the mother of a 13 year old boy. You get a call from the school principal who tells you that your son has been threatening, bullying, and physically abusing his classmates, and extorting money in exchange for leaving them alone. After being presented with the evidence, you sit your son down to explain to him why his behavior is morally wrong. Now, do you give him a lesson in biology? Do you tell him all about how altruism evolved in the human species? How do you make the inference from that, to his morally required behavior of kindness and empathy towards others? Suppose he says, "Sorry Mom, but I just don't feel that way." What is your next biological fact? And suppose he says he believes in biology, and that is precisely why he is acting in his own self interest. "Survival of the fittest," he says, "does not require altruism!"

In short, your argument fails--LOGICALLY!

Contrast that to your Christian neighbor who faces the same dilemma. Rather than state facts about biology (or anything else) she invokes God, and God's will, with all of the religious baggage that such explanations entail. Notice, however, that despite the fact that her argument engages a host of questionable metaphysical assumptions, the inference succeeds! Moral authority is at least grounded if she can make the religious sale.

The bottom line is that your argument results in a failure of moral authority, and thus moral relativism; whereas your neighbor's argument does not. Your argument involves a fallacious logical inference. Her argument involves questionable premises. Take your pick.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 04:04PM

I'm getting closer to understanding your point.

You think there is moral authority, a set of ideas that are viewed as binding on people and their action. You use as an example the idea that a mother refers to God to get the kid to do what he is supposed to do.

A major flaw in this argument is that God is the symbol of attempts to create universal moral authority. This is problematic because many Gods require their followers to hurt other Gods' peoples. That is true now in many Islamic cultures, as we see daily on TV. The people in the killers' communities agree with the killers that they are fulfilling their divine moral responsibility. Another example was the periodic pogroms against Jews for which Eastern Europe and Russia were famous. Likewise, the Christian God sometimes tells Christians to kill other Christians. This happened in the early centuries of the religion, when heretics were killed, also in the middle ages when heretics were systematically killed throughout France and Spain. You don't have one moral authority here but rather directly and bloodily contradictory moral codes symbolized by in some cases exactly the same God.

Rather than a universal moral authority we see parochial Gods, sometimes claiming to be universal Gods, that represent altruistic behavior based on the needs of the worshiping group. Attempts to move beyond the group's basic needs by encorporating enemy groups or to include the central group's longer term needs (like environmental preservation) break down really quickly. So yes, I am saying that morality is relative. That is an empirical fact. Human brains are strong enough to conceive of a universal moral code or authority but the motivating power of such attempts falls short almost daily. Empirically, moral authority is relative to a small degree within the group and to a great degree between groups.

On a different point, there is no contradiction between altruism and self-interest. You call it a paradox, which is true because a paradox is a conflict that in fact is not real. There is a reason that the apparently contradictory facts are not actually in contradiction. In this case it is because the survival of one's own genes, especially in social animals, is promoted by the protection of one's relatives--who happen to share many of the same genes. There is a rich literature on this; and no, there is not "hot debate" over the topic. The debate is on the margins, about secondary matters.

The bottom line is that human morality is perhaps greater than animal "morality" or "altruism" or "pro-group" behavior but that that difference is one of degree and not absolute. Humans assert a universal authority but only act in accordance with the code 70% or so of the time. Some animals species accord by their code as much or more. The difference is the extent to which humans consider and describe their moral feelings as both universal and as distinct from individual interests.

There is even an evolutionary reason that sociopaths and narcissists have not been selected out of the human gene pool. In periods of intense biological stress--climatic, military, famine, other--such people become particularly useful as leaders. They can kill, impose order, demand absolute ruthlessness in a way that sometimes enables a society to bond and survive. Those people are a major cost to society in normal times but represent an insurance policy against extreme crisis.

So yes, I am in your terms a moral relativist. Animals behave according to a moral authority (instinct), humans claim there is some absolute moral authority but violate it all the time both in daily activities and particularly in conflicts with other groups. That's why the definitions of sociopath are group-specific: namely, sociopathic behavior does not make a person a sociopath if that is the moral code of his particular group. That is in the recent DSMs. But you see the same thing with more general populations in wars over anything less than existential matters--or in wars over marginal issues but which the leaders assert existential significance.

Morality really is relative. It is relative to species, to human groups, to individuals. There is considerable overlap among humans, but that breaks down under stress and when dealing with other groups. The universal moral authority you assert is claimed by many human beings, but of its universal characteristics the greatest is the belief that such a thing exists. Empirically, your moral authority is far less evident in human behavior than the biological explanations (kinship altruism) and the psychological analysis (the genetic utility of a small number of sociopaths).

So yes, I don't agree that a universal moral authority exists and I do believe that morality is relative--that it breaks down quickly when conflicts occur between groups. Kinship altruism breaks down fast when the group grows bigger and needs to be reinforced by state power and education--and even then it breaks down under social, political or economic stress.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Tall Man, Short Hair ( )
Date: May 21, 2017 04:43PM

Paradoxes, or things we perceive as such are unsettling, and that is likely why this does have some staying power.

But like many paradoxes, there can be reasonable solutions that resolve the conflict if we recognize what is usually some fundamental flaw in the premises offered.

Apart from its self-defeating reliance upon a premise that its argument attempts to defeat, it also makes assumptions that cannot be reasonably argued as universal. The premise that relief of suffering is the highest good is more an emotional appeal than something factual. Nobody wants to see more suffering, but is the avoidance of suffering the highest good? That cannot be proven.

In most of our lives if we were offered a life free of suffering but without any real personal freedom versus a life marked with expansive freedoms that would be also open the likelihood of suffering, I think many of us would choose freedom. Put another way, "'Tis better to have loved and lost than never to have loved at all."



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/21/2017 04:51PM by Tall Man, Short Hair.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 06:51PM

I would ask why suffering is necessary to choice. That strikes me as a particularly Mormon, or Judeao-Christian, belief. Opposition in all things.

Other religions don't necessarily assume either that there is opposition in all things or that suffering is necessary to choice. I go to the supermarket. Will I suffer if I choose chocolate ice cream as opposed to vanilla?

The notion that the potential for pain is critical to choice is one that, I think, deserves to be questioned.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: ificouldhietokolob ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 07:25PM

Tall Man, Short Hair Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> The premise that relief of
> suffering is the highest good is more an emotional
> appeal than something factual.

What if the premise isn't that (which is a bit of a straw-man), and is simply that less suffering is more "good" than more suffering? Not necessarily the "highest good," just more good than suffering...

> Nobody wants to see
> more suffering, but is the avoidance of suffering
> the highest good? That cannot be proven.

The restatement above does away with that false-superlative issue.
Problem solved :)

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Tall Man, Short Hair ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 11:49AM

ificouldhietokolob Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
>
> What if the premise isn't that (which is a bit of
> a straw-man), and is simply that less suffering is
> more "good" than more suffering? Not necessarily
> the "highest good," just more good than
> suffering...
>

What if the ultimate good is human freedom? Quantifying suffering becomes secondary to freedom.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 04:09PM

But that would need to be proved.

I don't necessarily have a position on the matter, but the notion that freedom is more important than happiness or lack of pain is not empirically obvious. Nor is it clear that you need pain to have freedom.

Your argument is bolstered by religion but I'm not sure it appears authoritative without that support.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 04:58PM

It is also difficult to know how much freedom people actually have. Our freedom is impinged upon by genetics, our interaction with microbes and macrobes, history, politics and economics. There is still some area of human autonomy but it varies from person to person, place to place, and moment to moment.

Sometimes freedom is treated as a transcendent reality. It may be that, but in this world the picture is more murky.

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: ificouldhietokolob ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 09:06PM

Tall Man, Short Hair Wrote:
> What if the ultimate good is human freedom?
> Quantifying suffering becomes secondary to
> freedom.

What if there is no "ultimate good?"

That's the point I was trying to make -- that an appeal to some supposed "ultimate good" wasn't necessary. One thing being subjectively more good than another suffices for the original argument. :)

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Happy_Heretic ( )
Date: May 22, 2017 07:11PM

I defy anyone here to define what they mean when they use term "god" ("God'). Epicurus assumed some qualities about an empty concept, for which no reasonable definition has never been given. In other words its cognitively empty.

How can you discuss a cognitively empty concept exactly? Invc xkj order to have a rational discussion about anything it must adhere to three simple laws:
law of identity: A thing is itself,
Low of Non Contradiction: A thing can not be itself and not-itself in the same circumstance and under the same conditions, and
Low of Excluded MIddle: A think can not be both itself and not-itself in the same conditions, and under the same circumstances.

To me, its just as nonsensical an utterance as someone who claims just the opposite.

HH =)

Options: ReplyQuote
Posted by: Lot's Wife ( )
Date: May 23, 2017 12:14AM

But Epicurus specifically defined the God he was considering. He couldn't be more explicit about that.

Options: ReplyQuote
Go to Topic: PreviousNext
Go to: Forum ListMessage ListNew TopicSearchLog In


Screen Name: 
Your Email (optional): 
Subject: 
Spam prevention:
Please, enter the code that you see below in the input field. This is for blocking bots that try to post this form automatically.
 **     **  **    **  **        **         **    ** 
 **     **   **  **   **        **    **   **   **  
 **     **    ****    **        **    **   **  **   
 *********     **     **        **    **   *****    
 **     **     **     **        *********  **  **   
 **     **     **     **              **   **   **  
 **     **     **     ********        **   **    **