elderolddog Wrote:
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> If I'm understanding all of this, the 'hidden'
> Jews that came over with the conquistadores were
> most likely all male...
The "hidden Jews" WERE [themselves] conquistadores, and they were MOSTLY male.
According to the "Conquistador" article on Wikipedia (
https://en.Wikipedia.org/wiki/Conquistador ): "Castillian law banned Spanish women from traveling to America [in this usage means: south of present-day USA "America"] unless they were married and accompanied by a husband. Some conquistadors married Native American [means: south of present-day USA Native American] women or had illegitimate children." (There could also have been some Spanish colonization taking place in
in Florida, but if so, that's not what we are talking about here.)
> and they mated with the
> native women
Yes, the DID mate with the native women.
> and thus under Halle Berry law
According to Google, Halle Berry is not Jewish, and the "Halle Berry Law" has to do with paparazzi and minor children, and also has something to do with a joke Halle Berry made on the Jay Leno show about Jewish noses, which evidently caused some kind of mini-scandal or something.
> the native women's children were NOT Jewish.
Yes, the children native women had by Spanish conquistadores who were anusim/Marranos ("hidden Jews") were NOT Jewish under Jewish law.
> Of course
> biologically, some of the 'jewish' genetic
> material was passed on ... and on and on and on,
> becoming more and more 'diluted' as the
> generations passed.
This is a true statement.
> Of my five children, only one could 'pass' for
> Mestizo. And of her four children, only one looks
> Mestizo.
I accept your statement as totally factual since I have never seen you and I have never seen any of your children...and this is also true of Halle Berry and her children since I have never seen her, nor any of her children, either.
> So the biological jewishness of a line fathered by
> a Jew mating with a non-Jew gets diluted.
This would be a true statement assuming that there was no "new" "Jewish genetic material" in any specific maternal line. In real life, however, where there are usually or often additional infusions of "new" Jewish genetic material into a maternal or paternal line, this would NOT be a true statement. This becomes important in somewhat later northern New Mexico history. [See below.]
> And likewise, the biological jewishness of a line of
> Jewish women mating with non-Jewish men is
> diluted...
This would be true, too, if there were no additional infusions of Jewish blood into that particular line, but this is NOT what happened in at least a significant number of actual family lines.
> ...but that Halle Berry law says the kids
> are jewish...
No, the Halle Berry law is about paparazzi and minor children, and since Halle Berry is not a Jew, her children would not be Jewish either. (If they wanted to become Jews, they would have to convert to Judaism through circumcision or "symbolic" circumcision, plus going through the mikvah, plus appearing before a Bet Din, which is a Jewish court with a minimum of three rabbis.)
> ...and the female children can mate with
> non-Jewish men and their kids are Halle Berry
> Jews...
No, since Halle Berry is not a Jew, and her children are, therefore not Jews, then her female children can mate with whoever they choose to mate with, but that will NOT transform their non-Jewish children into Jews.
Not even a little bit. ;)
> ...with increasing dilution of the biological
> jewishness.
There is no "dilution of biological Jewishness" because there is no "Jewishness" to begin with. In very simple mathematical terms: 0+0 = 0
> It's called hybridization and it's all the rage,
> because of the benefits.
I fully accept the benefits of hybridization, but hybridization not only has nothing to do with Halle Berry's children re: their lack of Jewishness, it also has nothing to do with the topic of this thread.
> As an aside, the odds of an immigrant family from
> Mexico that made it's living as field hands having
> any 'jewishness' in their heritage depends a lot
> on what part of Mexico they were from...
This is true.
> and how close their ties to whatever Indian identity they
> came from.
No, this is a biological thing...Jewishness is biologically passed through the maternal line, so according to Jewish law, a biological mother who is Jewish would give birth to biologically-Jewish children, regardless of whatever Native American genetics also existed.
> Family 'closeness' has nothing to do
> with being Jewish.
I don't know what you mean here. Sexual intercourse is generally considered to be an anatomically fairly "close" activity, among at least most people, and reproduction (until very recent times) has been pretty much restricted to joint anatomical activities sufficient to create new life.
> According to literature and the
> movies, there are many Jewish families that are
> not close and to make a claim that Jewish families
> somehow achieve a 'closeness' that non-Jewish
> families cannot, is pie in the sky.
I have never made such a claim, and I do not understand why you seem to be asserting that this is somehow part of human reproduction.
[Here is the note I referred to above: The Spanish conquistadores who first explored, and then colonized, what is now the general northern New Mexico/southern Colorado area, came directly from what is today the Republic of Mexico (in other words: south of the Rio Grande). Because they were traveling overland (and NOT across the Atlantic Ocean) the Spanish restrictions on Spanish women traveling with the conquistadores did not apply, so females of all ages and marital states could travel with the conquistadores, and could take part in the Spanish colonization of what is now the southwestern United States. I don't know if there actually were Spanish women with the conquistadores who founded the first Spanish colony in New Mexico in 1598, but there COULD have been...and if there were not women with the conquistadores right then, you better believe they arrived soon afterwards. What this means is that the living situation is instantly "regularized" once wives and other females arrive in the new Spanish colony: for those who were keeping track (and with the Inquisition going full bore, this probably included everyone) Spanish men and Spanish women COULD marry each other, AND---if the woman was Jewish---her children would ABSOLUTELY be Jews.
Which means: in what is now the USA, and from the year 1598 (or thereabouts) on, "hidden Jewish" men could marry "hidden Jewish" women and they would have born-Jewish children (which, likely, only they and probably a few other "hidden Jews" would know about).
"Hidden Jewish" women could marry Native Americans (or have children by them), and those children would be legally Jewish according to Jewish law.
"Hidden Jewish" men could marry Native American women (or any other women who were not Jewish) and have NOT-Jewish children, but those CHILDREN could (when they were of age) marry each other and have children who were, or were not, Jewish, according to if the mother of a new infant was Jewish or not...
...and on and on and on to today, February 26, 2018.
So...by the time 1598 or so rolled around, it was very soon close to "normal life" for the new New Mexican colonists---with the exception that the Spaniards in northern New Mexico were way to the north of where most of the other Spaniards were hanging out a few hundred miles to the south.
And three centuries or so into the future, Fray Angelico Chavez would write his book about the original Spanish families of northern New Mexico, and I would buy a copy of that book, and I (just like anyone else) could fairly quickly figure out "who was a Jew" back then...and who was not...
...and I would learn that incredible lesson about the persistence of human culture through centuries of time.
Edited 3 time(s). Last edit at 02/26/2018 02:38PM by Tevai.