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Posted by: Thread Killer ( )
Date: September 27, 2011 04:14PM

I heard a fellow on the radio the other day talking about how christians have misinterepreted the Old Testament and read into it prophecies of the messiah that aren't really there, and it started me athinkin' (as Josep Smith might say). I googled it and picked a random one. I know the critics say that all the "Christ-talk" in the BoM doesn't fit linguistically, and I'm certainly no theologin, but this might be a much bigger deal:
http://www.skeptically.org/newtestament/id21.html

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Posted by: Fetal Deity ( )
Date: September 28, 2011 01:42AM

I think a lot of the correct interpretations cited in your link were known by Bible scholars in the early 1800's ... but whoever wrote the BoM didn't have clue!

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Posted by: baura ( )
Date: September 28, 2011 04:40AM

The Old Testament "prophecies" about Jesus were things that had to be interpreted, they were not straight forward. That's how prophecies were done back then. They were vague and poetic. The Oracle at Delphi is an example. The oracle would say something that got interpreted one way and then only later would the people realize in retrospect what it really had meant.

But the Book of Mormon prophecies about Jesus are unambiguous and spot on. They even give his name as "Jesus Christ" which is the Greek version of his name, Yeshua with the Greek version of the title "Christ" which, in Hebrew would be more like "messiah." In fact the Book of Mormon seems to use "Christ" as if it were his last name, as if Joseph and Mary Christ had a baby and named him Jesus.

In the Book of Mormon it is stated that Jesus' mother will be named Mary. Now that's a specific, non-ambiguous prophecy. It is also a prophecy that would be absolutely of no use to the Book of Mormon peoples whatsoever since they are a continent away from where Jesus would be born. No way for them to say, "hey this guy's mother is Mary and his name is Jesus, he must be the Messiah." No, they don't meet Jesus until he descends from the sky leaving no doubt who he is.

Of course it's easy to point out that the name Mary was obviously known to Joseph Smith as being the name of Jesus' mother. This is another "looks like JS did it" aspects of the BOM.

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Posted by: Thread Killer ( )
Date: September 28, 2011 12:15PM

Yes, the apologists can't squirm out of this one, IMO. If Joe translated exactly, then he should have not used Christ although this might have been one of those times where he could have pulled the "which by by interpretation means..." thing (which I firmly believe he also ripped off from the bible). He would have used Messiah, or He, or Him, but not Jesus Christ. Now, if he'd used Yeshuah he woulda had a "bullseye" as Kerry Shirts would say...

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