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Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 11/19/2011 01:09AM by wjexmo.

If Joseph Smith understood Hebrew so well,why did he think Esaias and Isaiah were different prophets? Or Elija and Elias?

Regards,
Soblindsolong

I am unsure but what you are employing by josephs Hebrew

http://wherecanIlearnHebrew.com

Smith took lessons in Hebrew - years after he wrote the BoM.

It is correct that the Old Testament of the King James Bible spells Ramah and the New Testament Rama. But considering that so many Hebrew words ending in -a are spelt -ah (that is actually an adaptation of the Hebrew spelling), I don't find it a surprise if Smith spelled it that way even if quoting the New Tstament.

Smith based the BoM on common ideas among his contemporaries, not only View of the Hebrews, and his own creativity. It is as simple as that.

The closest Joe ever came to Hebrew was when he was circumcised.

Ron

I looked at the article. The quote they attribute to Jer. 31:15 is actually for Jer. 31:14, but don't tell anyone?

The actual Jer. 31:15 says, "Thus saith the LORD: Refrain thy voice from weeping, and thine eyes from tears; for thy work shall be rewarded, saith the LORD; and they shall come back from the land of the enemy."

He came from a religious family. He was obviously very interested in religion. His dad was a part time teacher. Why couldn't he have obtained information about the Bible besides just the Bible itself?

I'm sure he learned bits and pieces of info from church manuals, newspapers, books from the library, etc. Maybe some preacher in a sermon explained what Ramah meant and Joseph thought "cool."

He could have learned a lot of things about the Bible from various sources. Its not like he was living in a cave.

They probably had Bible commentaries at home that would have given him all the details he needed.

Rigdon knew Greek and Hebrew.

Rama, Rama, Krishna, Krishna
Rama, Rama, Dinga, Donga

I'm not impressed that the first 3 letters of Rameumptom are ram.

Why did the Jaredites call the Hill Cumorah "Ramah?" Because JS copied it out of the OT?

Oh, "Ramah" related to "Ramath" as in "Ramath Lehi" aka "jawbone hill" where Sampson killed a lot of people with the jaw bone of an ass Judges 15:17

And Rigdon was most likely the author (whether directly or through revision of a Spalding (or others) manuscript) and the conduit of the BOM to Smith ...

Smith may have revised it in turn but it was an educated man who conceived it ...

Joseph Smith and the elders studied Hebrew with Professor Seixas during the winter of 1835-36 in Kirtland. This was after the publication of the Book of Mormon, so his studies had no bearing on the "translation," but had influence on his later interpretations.

Interesting article in: "Dialoge: A Journal of Mormon Thought"

http://www.dialoguejournal.com/wp-content/uploads/sbi/articles/Dialogue_V03N02_43.pdf

Very large .pdf file, about 6mb.

The Hebrew culture he creates is totally bogus.

I think he studied it at least briefly, but I have studied French, Greek and Italian and am far from fluent in any of them although I can read them to some extent with the help of a dictionary. Many nuances escape me althoug I can usually get the jist of things providing I know the vocabulary or look it up. I imagine that Hebrew is harder.I doubt he was all that proficient.