Posted by:
hello
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Date: January 20, 2012 04:51PM
First, let me say that I find all these covenants in the temple to be spurious and despicable. And to be clear, I believe in complete equality between spouses. But let's be clear about the wording of the covenant. It does not say, "as he obeys Christ".
According to Richard Packham's site, pre-1990, the covenant read,
"ELOHIM: Each of you bring your right arm to the square. You and each of you solemnly covenant and promise before God, angels, and these witnesses at this altar that you will each observe and keep the law of your husbands, and abide by his counsel in righteousness. Each of you bow your head and say "Yes."
WOMEN: Yes.
ELOHIM: That will do.
This seems to be exhorting the wives to "abide by their husbands' counsels in righteousness", themselves, rather than basing their "abiding" on the husband's righteousness.
Post-1990, the covenant reads,
"In the 1990 revisions this Law was changed so that the woman is not required to "obey" the husband, but to "obey the Law of the Lord, and to hearken unto the counsel of her husband, as her husband hearkens unto the counsel of the Father."
I think it is a big stretch to therefore interpret this covenant to be limited, based solely on the husband's real or imagined "righteousness", or lack thereof. It seems to refer to a manner of protocol in the priesthood (from the father, to the husband, to the wife), rather than a qualifier based on the wife's judgments. This revised version also says nothing about the husband "obeying Christ in righteousness".
I think if you interpret this covenant as being based on the wife's judgment of the husband's righteousness, then you have basically nullified the covenant from the start, in which case, why bother making such a covenant at all?