"Sin will always be sin."

If he is truly the Lard's Anointed and truly a "prophet, seer, revelator," then why did he NOT point out plainly what the Lard was trying to say "through" him? Why used such a cryptic sentence?

I personally think he was talking about homosexuality and/or gay marriage.

If so, and if Jesus really had his back, why didn't he just come right out and say "Homosexuality and gay marriage will always be sin."

Was he scared of public backlash?

I think you're exactly right. That's the kind of statement that the faithful will understand, and they'll know what to apply it to. But it's also vague enough to minimize or eliminate any potential backlash.

Why would the Lard's Anointed and "prophet, seer, and revelator" be afraid of simple backlash?

I mean, look at his predecessors (or equals in the past), such as Isaiah, Ezekiel, Samuel the Lamanite, etc., they were not afraid of anything that might befall them. They were not even afraid of death or imprisonment.

Unless.......L. Tom Perry and the rest of the Big 15 ARE NOT the Lard's Anointed and "prophets, seers, and revelators," who are supposed to have the "moral courage" to speak "the truth" in such plain and simple manner, like Nephi, Isaiah, Ezekiel, etc..