Posted by:
demoneca
(
)
Date: December 04, 2014 06:56PM
I have a question concerning the Old Testament.
There was a city God destroyed in th OT. All in the city was wicked, including babies and children, since that includes everyone. I don't remember them being spared. Not sure if this was the same city the virgins were taken either. If I remember correctly, these people were given a few hundred years to absolve their wickedness, but they didn't, so their genocide was righteous.
Today, like always, other atrocities happen. I was talking with my devout Christian cousin about the horrible things that happen in the world to individuals, many of which the afflicted had no control over. He basically said God takes an evil situation and brings good out of it. I agree in trying to make the most out of a bad situation...but this is on an entirely different plane of bad. Some things are obstacles in life, others are just damaging. The two are very different.
Anyway, why didn't God try to salvage the good out of the children, babies, and some of the women ("property" only gets so much choice)? Is it because these people would always continue to live in wickedness, so there was no point in saving a culture that would continue to spiral into doom? Saving the kids wasn't an option because they may decide as adults to restart their original heritage one day?
I'm genuinely curious and stumped. Since the Bible was written in a corrupt world by imperfect people, what do you think was the thought process behind the decision to kill off both innocent and immoral people in the OT city? I realize I can only speculate, but there has to be a darn good reason for the justification. I will be mildly surprised if there isn't.