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Posted by: sherlock ( )
Date: January 15, 2015 03:43AM

After reading the following apologetic article that tries to explain Joseph Smith's polygamy, I came up with a few questions.

First the link to the article:

http://ldsmag.com/avoiding-testimony-casualties-over-plural-marriage/

And a quote from it:

"Smith never referred to the relationships he entered into or authorized as “marriages.” Those who participated in plural marriage used the term after Smith’s death. A much more appropriate term would be “sealing”...... Those who were sealed to couples also saved their families. This may explain why Heber C. Kimball was so keen to have his 14-year-old daughter sealed to the Prophet. Helen forged a link between the Kimballs and the Smiths, but also vouchsafed the Kimball family’s salvation...... In this scenario, Helen Mar Kimball was an agent securing her family’s salvation......With this theological base in mind, however, it makes sense that the sealing ordinances was a means of creating “welding links” between himself and other Saints as well as ensure their salvation."


So the (anonymous) author tries to pass off polygamy/polyandry as being just about sealing individuals and families. Apart from the obvious questions as to why you'd therefore need to seal (marry) another faithful man's wife and have sexual relations, I thought of the following questions:

1) If it was just about sealing individuals and families, why did JS stop at 14 year old girls? Why not seal (marry) 10 year olds or even 5 year old daughters of his trusted member friends? If it wasn't really a 'marriage' and the connotations associated with that, why stop at 14?

2) Why do these women/girls have to be sealed (married) as a 'wife' to JS? Why not seal HMK as a 'daughter' to Joseph & Emma, or seal the entire Kimball family to Joseph's family?

3) Doesn't sealing (marrying) a 14 year old girl massively impact her opportunity to additionally marry her own companion in this life? Is that fair and ordained of God?

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Posted by: The Invisible Green Potato ( )
Date: January 15, 2015 03:59AM

4) Why not seal directly to Heber Kimball instead of his daughter? If it was just about sealing then worthy men could be sealed to each other.

5) What happened to the doctrine of sealing? Why is it no longer practised?

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Posted by: hello ( )
Date: January 15, 2015 05:11AM

The Invisible Green Potato Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> 4) Why not seal directly to Heber Kimball instead
> of his daughter? If it was just about sealing
> then worthy men could be sealed to each other.
>
> 5) What happened to the doctrine of sealing? Why
> is it no longer practised?

Yes, we all know now that Joe did in fact "seal" to many men, making them sons or brothers or something, and creating dynastic ties, supposedly, so they would share an eternal relationship. In this same manner, John D. Lee was sealed to Brigham Young. There was no need for man/woman marriages, nor for D&C sec. 132, for that matter. The prophet even authorized a "sealing" of a black woman as a slave in Joe's eternal household.

You make a good point, Green Potato, also, about the discontinuance of this practice. After the supposed "end of sealings and polygamy" we hear no more about such a practice, and yet it violated no law of the land.

These Mo apologists are entirely without sense or principle.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 01/15/2015 05:13AM by hello.

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Posted by: Ex-CultMember ( )
Date: January 15, 2015 01:29PM

"...the sealing ordinances was a means of creating “welding links” between himself and other Saints as well as ensure their salvation."

So Kimball's family had to "ensure their salvation" by being "link(ed)" to Joseph Smith? Why? And if salvation is ensured by being linked to Joseph Smith, then why weren't all Mormons linked to Joseph Smith through sealings so that they were "ensured" salvation?

Why wasn't my convert family "linked" to any Joseph Smith or any other Mormon family? My family comes from a long line of Lutherans. We were just told to do the sealings for our ancestors. We were never told we need to "link" to Joseph Smith or some prominent Mormon man to ensure our salvation.

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Posted by: ificouldhietokolob ( )
Date: January 15, 2015 02:06PM

The claim is false on its face.

"William Clayton, Smith's scribe, recorded early polygamous marriages in 1843, including unions between Smith and Eliza Partridge, Emily Partridge, Sarah Ann Whitney, Helen Kimball and Flora Woodworth. Clayton relates: "On the 1st day of May, 1843, I officiated in the office of an Elder by marrying Lucy Walker to the Prophet Joseph Smith, at his own residence. During this period the Prophet Joseph took several other wives. Amongst the number I well remember Eliza Partridge, Emily Partridge, Sarah Ann Whitney, Helen Kimball and Flora Woodworth. These all, he acknowledged to me, were his lawful, wedded wives..."

"[Orson]Pratt reported that Smith told some early members in 1831 and 1832 that plural marriage was a true principle, but that the time to practice it had not yet come."

D&C 132:19 And again, verily I say unto you, if a man marry a wife by my word, which is my law, and by the new and everlasting covenant, and it is sealed unto them by the Holy Spirit of promise...

D&C:61-62 And again, as pertaining to the law of the priesthood—if any man espouse a virgin, and desire to espouse another, and the first give her consent, and if he espouse the second, and they are virgins, and have vowed to no other man, then is he justified; he cannot commit adultery for they are given unto him; for he cannot commit adultery with that that belongeth unto him and to no one else.
And if he have ten virgins given unto him by this law, he cannot commit adultery, for they belong to him, and they are given unto him; therefore is he justified.

("espouse" means "to marry")

They're trying to play word games. Dishonestly.

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