Posted by:
sherlock
(
)
Date: January 15, 2015 03:43AM
After reading the following apologetic article that tries to explain Joseph Smith's polygamy, I came up with a few questions.
First the link to the article:
http://ldsmag.com/avoiding-testimony-casualties-over-plural-marriage/And a quote from it:
"Smith never referred to the relationships he entered into or authorized as “marriages.” Those who participated in plural marriage used the term after Smith’s death. A much more appropriate term would be “sealing”...... Those who were sealed to couples also saved their families. This may explain why Heber C. Kimball was so keen to have his 14-year-old daughter sealed to the Prophet. Helen forged a link between the Kimballs and the Smiths, but also vouchsafed the Kimball family’s salvation...... In this scenario, Helen Mar Kimball was an agent securing her family’s salvation......With this theological base in mind, however, it makes sense that the sealing ordinances was a means of creating “welding links” between himself and other Saints as well as ensure their salvation."
So the (anonymous) author tries to pass off polygamy/polyandry as being just about sealing individuals and families. Apart from the obvious questions as to why you'd therefore need to seal (marry) another faithful man's wife and have sexual relations, I thought of the following questions:
1) If it was just about sealing individuals and families, why did JS stop at 14 year old girls? Why not seal (marry) 10 year olds or even 5 year old daughters of his trusted member friends? If it wasn't really a 'marriage' and the connotations associated with that, why stop at 14?
2) Why do these women/girls have to be sealed (married) as a 'wife' to JS? Why not seal HMK as a 'daughter' to Joseph & Emma, or seal the entire Kimball family to Joseph's family?
3) Doesn't sealing (marrying) a 14 year old girl massively impact her opportunity to additionally marry her own companion in this life? Is that fair and ordained of God?