Has anyone ever heard how apologists reconcile the rules given by the Lard for the proper practice of polygamy and the way Joe did it?

For instance, the lord said it was ok only if the woman was a virgin. Yet, Joe was caught marrying other men's wives who clearly were "experienced."

I avoid apologists like a pox riddled hooker so I don't know what they say about this topic.

The man was to get permission from the first wife, but JS sometimes didn't even tell Emma that he had married another woman.

Smith's polygamy was to be a "restoration" of OT polygamy. But the OT forbade a man to marry both a mother and daughter, or two sisters. But JS did.

Polygamy was supposed to be for "raising up a righteous seed," i.e., it had to involve sex. But the church claims that some of JS' plural marriages were non-sexual, and only for "dynastic purposes."

D&C 132 never saw the light of day until some eight years after Joseph Smith's death. Since, unlike most of his other revelations, this one was never published during his lifetime and, as a result, we have NO INDEPENDENT PROOF that he ever produced a revelation on polygamy. Joseph never claimed that he received one when alive and, in fact, publicly denounced polygamy on numerous occasions. As a matter of fact, we know of some of Joseph's "wives" from affidavits they swore to late in life to prove to the reorganized LDS that he was a polygamist. The church was not able to prove to their satisfaction that Joseph ever received D&C 132.

Some may point out that it was "recorded" in a journal by William Clayton, one of Joseph's scribes, but this would not constitute independent proof since the scribe was a mormon loyal to both Joseph Smith and Brigham Young and was sealed to his first plural wife by Joseph himself . Emma, of course, always denied that she was ever shown the revelation and to her dying breath claimed she knew nothing about it.

Edited for clarification.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 02/27/2015 11:33AM by Templar.