Posted by:
samwitch
(
)
Date: August 24, 2016 09:34PM
Again, why the privileging of "Western" cultures? The question was asked in the previous thread, but never answered.
Why is democracy inherently more moral than other forms of government, given that voters may or may not have either an internal moral compass nor a belief system guiding them as they vote?
And, if "every democracy throughout history" has outlawed polyandry, what are we to make of the fact that polyandry was practiced in some areas of ancient Greece, the (thoroughly pagan) cradle of democracy?
Romans, a "Western" society whom many consider the pinnacle of ancient culture, knowledge, and civilization, did it, too.
Although this is an admittedly non-scholarly source, check out ten times polyandry was accepted and practiced:
http://www.alternet.org/sex-amp-relationships/10-surprising-times-history-when-polyamory-was-acceptableLest you default to the logical fallacy of simply attacking the source rather than addressing the content, note that you can find the same information in scholarly articles and history texts.
So far, the only argument here focuses on determining paternity: "The family tree is a rat's nest." The answer is a concept called "partible paternity" -- the cultural belief that a child can have more than one father. Of course, that idea doesn't sit well with patriarchy, which views women as unequal partners who "belong" to a man and which uses male primogeniture to confer money, rights, assets, and power to male children of individual men.
The other unanswered question from the previous post: Why is the concept of women having equal marital options so disturbing? Simply repeating the ten assertions from the other thread does not answer the question.