Posted by:
ragnar
(
)
Date: November 11, 2017 03:23PM
While reading the news, I see an article about polygamy:
https://www.yahoo.com/entertainment/daughter-polygamist-cult-founder-recounts-044949238.htmlIn the headline, it uses the word "cult" and refers to Warren Jeffs as the "founder."
In the article, it describes Jeffs as a "self-proclaimed prophet."
Why is such verbiage reserved for the FLDS church, and not for the "mainstream" LDS Church?
They are both cults.
Also, wouldn't Joseph Smith be considered the "founder" of both the FLDS and LDS churches?
And wouldn't it be accurate to describe Joseph Smith AND Thomas Monson as "self-proclaimed" prophets?
Why does the media use such vocabulary for one side of the coin, but not the other?