Posted by:
Tall Man, Short Hair
(
)
Date: March 09, 2012 12:20AM
You might ask the missionaries to define what they mean. I believe that generally speaking, "sealing" is intended to refer to a ceremony with the added "eternal" significance that usually takes place in the temple. But "sealing" was never intended to mean "sexless marriage" as some LDS would want.
Quinn has some good examples in his examination of post-manifesto marriages with the brief allowance for sealings to take place outside of temples to accomodate the concealment of plural marriages in Mexico:
http://www.scribd.com/doc/62597201/Authorized-Post-Manifesto-Polygamy-by-Michael-QuinnAlso, if your friends persist that Smith's marriages were sexless, then you need to tell them he was sinning. While the BoM soundly condemns polygamy, its escape clause the LDS love to cite in Jacob 2:30 allows polygamy only for raising up seed: " For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things."
And D&C 132:63 says the same thing. Plural wives are "are given unto him to multiply and replenish the earth." So if Joseph was taking wives without the express purpose of procreation, he was violating his god's laws.