Posted by:
RPackham
(
)
Date: March 13, 2016 11:04AM
For more such contradictions see my list at "Mormon Contradictions"
http://packham.n4m.org/contra.htm (The one mentioned by OP is at the top).
For similar contradictions in the Bible, see my "Bible Notes" at
http://packham.n4m.org/bible.htm#CONTRAChristians who claim that polygamy in the OT was never sanctioned by God overlook the fact that the prophet Nathan specifically told King David that God had given David his wives. (2 Sam 12:8) They often cite (as Allegro does above) Deut 17:17, saying that the king should not "multiply wives to himself," but that does not mean he should have only one wife, since the same language in the previous verse forbids him to "multiply horses." So the king should have only one horse?
The argument that God gave rules for the practice because people were practicing it anyway does not hold water. Why didn't God simply forbid it? Note that if he had, there would not have been twelve tribes of Israel. In all the passages in the OT reporting a man having multiple wives, there is not a word which indicates that God condemns the practice.