Posted by:
anointed one
(
)
Date: September 10, 2012 05:14AM
The purported justification for plural marriage is D&C 132 wherein it states in verse 61 to 63
61 And again, as pertaining to the law of the priesthood—if any man espouse a virgin, and desire to espouse aanother, and the first give her consent, and if he espouse the second, and they are virgins, and have vowed to no other man, then is he justified; he cannot commit adultery for they are given unto him; for he cannot commit adultery with that that belongeth unto him and to no one else.
62 And if he have aten virgins given unto him by this law, he cannot commit adultery, for they belong to him, and they are given unto him; therefore is he justified.
63 But if one or either of the ten virgins, after she is espoused, shall be with another man, she has committed adultery, and shall be destroyed; for they are given unto him to amultiply and replenish the earth, according to my commandment, and to fulfil the promise which was given by my Father before the foundation of the world, and for their exaltation in the eternal worlds, that they may bear the souls of men; for herein is the work of my Father continued, that he may be bglorified.
It talks about virgins. How can women already married to other men (polyandry) be virgins? The purpose of plural marriage is also stated as to 'multiply and replenish the earth'. Why then didn't Joseph openly conceive children with his plural wives? Oh, that's right, he just wanted to have sex with them, not have children.
Also, what's this requirement of 'consent' Emma didn't consent to any of this.
Tom