Posted by:
StillConfuzed
(
)
Date: February 15, 2013 12:49AM
Here's one of several questions I have never been able to settle in my head; According to BOM Jesus appeared to the folks living in the Americas, then went to heaven only to reappear as an infant to grow up and preach to those in the Middle East. Wouldn't Jesus' appearance in Bethlehem constitute his second coming. And any further appearance from Jesus in this era then be not the second coming, but rather the THIRD coming? I'm sure someone must have the answer, but every time I ask folks look at me like I'm speaking in Reformed Egyptian or something.